Only if the variation is PROVEN to be a result of Neanderthal DNA, which it hasnt been. Saying that 1% to 3% of some DNA marker is shared by Neanderthals and Homo Sapiens is meaningless if the DNA marker in question exists in the Homo Sapiens population at an equal or higher rate anyway, which it might very well do.
They need more research and bigger sample sizes before they can draw conclusions like this.
Modern humans differ very little from one another when it comes to genes. Our biggest differences seem to be a consequence of epigenetics ~
btw, Neanderthals are classified as “Homo sapiens neanderthalensis” and you and I are probably classified as “Homo sapiens sapiens” ~ in the same genus.