This is not a fact. It is the author's claim and one I disagree with.
Las Casas and many other honorable Spaniards of the time would also disagree.
But he dared to do what others thought impossible, and the result was a changed world: the integration of two previously autonomous hemispheres
This part is quite true.
During the century after 1492 it is likely the population of the Americas decreased by 85% to 95%. This is the big "proof" given for the iniquity of Columbus and other Europeans.
However, the vast majority of this die-off was due to the merging of the American and Afro-Eurasian disease ecologies. Most of those who died during this period never saw a Spaniard or other European.
The Spaniards did not want this or do anything specific to cause it. Pretty much the same thing would have happened if the Indians had been more advanced and had sailed across to and "discovered" Europe or Asia.
Sherman, is it true that most of Mexico today is run by Spanish decendents? I ask because of a debate I’m having about the indigenous peoples of Mexico and their representation in the Mexican government. Thanks in advance for any help!
If Columbus had never sailed in 1492, Europeans would have learned about the New World pretty soon anyway--in 1500 Pedro Cabral accidentally encountered Brazil while sailing around Africa en route to India. And of course John Cabot discovered Newfoundland in 1497 (but he was aware of Columbus--I'm not sure if he had the idea of sailing west before he heard of Columbus).
“However, the vast majority of this die-off was due to the merging of the American and Afro-Eurasian disease ecologies. Most of those who died during this period never saw a Spaniard or other European.”
It happened before Spainards even set foot on the mainland. They landed in Carribean islands. There was native traffic between the islands and the mainland. The Spainards carred smallpox. The natives carried smallpox back to the mainland. By the time the Spainards got to the mainland, native populations had been decimated.