I’m confused. He said that Neandethals were never in Africa. And yet “modern man” came out of Africa and mixed with them.
How is that possible? He’s suggesting that two species of humanoids developed completely independantly and yet could interbreed.
I don’t dispute that we probably mixed with whatever was close to us, I do dispute that Neanderthals were never in Africa. Did they not almost have to have ancestors in common or they wouldn’t have been able to breed?
Instruct me, SunkenCiv, where am I going wrong?
They (and we) had common ancestors. One of the foolish errors made over and over, perhaps beginning with R. Virchow, is to claim that different looks means different origins.
I think neanderthals and us (homo sapiens sapiens) had a common ancestor about 650,000 years ago. *I think*. then some of them moved to Eurasian and deveoped there into Neanderthals.
Homo Sapiens Sapiens developed an independent branch in Africa and then they (we) moved to Eurasia and around the world.
Two species can indeed interbreed; dogs and coyotes, donkeys and horses, domestic cats and some wild cats.
However I am unsure about our Neanderthal genes. I think I’ll wait until there is more proof and more research. Although, after we moved into Eurasia and joined what had become the Neanderthals, we co-existed for about 30,000 years.
Who knows what teenagers will get up to?
African man and Neanderthal man had a common ancestor. It looks like African man and Neanderthal man were different races rather than different species, ie, were genetically close enough to their common ancestor that they could interbreed.