Granted, Arthur was dead but the question of his having been ineligible was still being raised and in fact was increasing at the time.
How about some actual proof that any Framer relied upon the point you seek to make as allegedly from the common law of England as it dealt with "subjects" rather than citoyen. Do you think that we during the period of "secring the Revolution" leading to the War of 1812, agreed with the British citing of jus soli" in order to impress our seamen and impress them in the Royal Navy? The simple fact is that we as a nation did not and wound up securing the Revolution by winning the War of 1812, even after Washington was sacked. This history soundly disproves your thesis.
Do you know exactly what Justice Story said? I believe you are referring to the following:
Why is that "controlling precedent" and not merely dicta? What was Shanks about, exactly? (I add that de Vattel is not cited anywhere in Shanks.)