To: ought-six
Thus, it is wholly inapplicable to the events of 1860-1865, except as an after-the-fact opinion.Amazingly, all Supreme Court opinions are after-the-fact. Do you really think the court should simply sit there and make pronouncements before any cases are brought?
306 posted on
08/06/2010 9:02:32 AM PDT by
Bubba Ho-Tep
("More weight!"--Giles Corey)
To: Bubba Ho-Tep
My point was that prior to the Texas v. White decision in 1869 there was no legal imprimatur on the issue of secession.
382 posted on
08/06/2010 8:06:29 PM PDT by
ought-six
( Multiculturalism is national suicide, and political correctness is the cyanide capsule.)
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