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To: An.American.Expatriate
"None of them allow you to remove yourself and you immobile property from thier jurisdiction"

What state will not allow you to remove yourself from their jurisdiction? As for immobile property, that seems to be a law of nature, not the law of government. If it's immobile (such as a house) you are free to sell it if you can't move it.

"Again - why the insistance that I must delegate a power I reserve to myself and my fellow citizens?"

Exactly! The Southern states did not put the vote to the people. When they seceded, their state legislatures took the vote, not the people. When did the citizens delegate that right for them to secede?
231 posted on 08/05/2010 12:12:01 PM PDT by Old Teufel Hunden
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To: Old Teufel Hunden
Seriously, try to learn something. Your posts are going to start to be ignored if you keep up with this undocumented BS.

Ordinances of Secession

The ordinances of secession were the actual legal language by which the seceded states severed their connection with the Federal Union. The declarations of causes, given elsewhere on this Web site, are where they tended to disclose their reasons for doing so, although only four states issued separate declarations of causes.

The political theory of the time among secessionists required that the act of secession be carried out by a specially elected convention or by referendum. In this sense the "secessions" of both Missouri and Kentucky were flawed, as neither was carried out in this manner. The Missouri secession ordinance was passed by a rump legislature and never approved by the people at large. The Kentucky secession ordinance was adopted by a convention of 200 participants representing 65 counties, held in Russellville.

233 posted on 08/05/2010 12:16:02 PM PDT by central_va (I won't be reconstructed, and I do not give a damn.)
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To: Old Teufel Hunden
If it's immobile (such as a house) you are free to sell it if you can't move it.

Being forced to give up your property is NOT a remedy for tyrany.

The Southern states did not put the vote to the people.

Are you claiming that the state governments did not represent the will of the people? Did these governments allow the people to vote on other matters of a constitutional nature (admitting new states, ammendments, etc?)?

234 posted on 08/05/2010 12:20:44 PM PDT by An.American.Expatriate (Here's my strategy on the War against Terrorism: We win, they lose. - with apologies to R.R.)
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To: Old Teufel Hunden
The Southern states did not put the vote to the people. When they seceded, their state legislatures took the vote, not the people. When did the citizens delegate that right for them to secede?

Nope. The legislatures set up special conventions, elected by the people, on the no-blacks, no-women suffrage of the time, to consider secession. At least some of the states, I believe at least VA and TX, also submitted the convention's resolution of secession to popular referendum.

238 posted on 08/05/2010 12:25:26 PM PDT by Sherman Logan
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