If you want to get into some truly bizarre conversations, I recommend Indian websites dedicated to the idea that the Aryans didn’t invade and conquer India.
The obvious correspondence in the Indo-European languages is instead due to the Indo-Europeans originating in India and spreading from there to Persia and Europe. (We’ll leave aside the fact that there is no historical evidence of any migration in this direction other than that of the Gypsies. While there are multiple examples of invasions from Central Asia into the subcontinent.)
Very odd people. Europeans aren’t offended because the areas where they now live were conquered by Indo-European speaking peoples from elsewhere, but some Indians definitely are.
That’s like 78% or so of over a billion-plus population being in denial of their Central European roots, LOL!
I quite agree. There is new evidence (in a topic that’s posted, or is on deck somewhere) that Harappan settlements became more numerous in the western areas of the civ’s range over a period of time (yeah, in fact, one of our fellow FReepers did post it, along with a nice colorful series of maps) from 4000 BC to 2500 BC. Obviously this could easily be an artifact of where the dig sites have been made, or an artifact of said political agenda, or an artifact of population increase out of the SOUTH, which is where the Dravidian tongues are mostly found today. It could also be due to having been pushed south by the Aryan invasions. :’)
We now know the first Indo-Europeans were simply unlike modern Europeans ~ and in fact, modern Europeans are pretty much the descendants of the two Eastern-most Ice Age Refugia (one encompassing the Franco-Spanish border area, and another the Adriatic Coast).