John routinely used “the Jews” to refer to the leaders of the Jews, as distinct from the multitudes or the crowds of ordinary people. Cf. “for fear of the Jews,” which meant the authorities. (See the note in the NIV Study Bible at John 7:15. Scholars generally concur that Jesus did not have formal rabbinical training as did Paul.) Concerning my use of the term “courtesy,” I was saying that they used “Rabbi” as a term for one who had earned the right to be called that by his inherent qualities rather than by having formal credentials.
John uses the term ‘The Jews’ in more that one way - the authorities, the ordinary residents of Jerusalem, and the pilgrim visitors. Jn 7:15 = the crowd of Jn 7:20, who say he is demonised. No one builds a doctrine on that. What evidence is there for an absence of formal education other than Jn 7:15 (who also say he is demonised)? Why would the son of devout Jewish parents lack education? When Jesus is described as teaching ‘with authority’, ‘exousia’ here also means legal authority or jurisdiction. Otherwise how could he teach in the Temple? Thanks for the debate!