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To: fanfan; sionnsar

One thing that I would like to look into later (after I get the rest of my work out of the way) is how the 16th Amendment got passed - what the government said to get it through. Why would anyone willingly give the government the Constitutional authority to tax your income? They do need money to operate, but they were already given a way to do so by the founding fathers.


2,406 posted on 01/16/2007 8:53:01 AM PST by tuliptree76
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To: tuliptree76
I would bet that it started out as a "tax the rich" scheme -- nobody else would pay. Then, of course, with the precedent in place, the tax threshold moved downwards, the flow of money to the feds increased, and the centralization of power in D.C. grew.

We never seem to learn that the worst measures are always enacted with the "unpopular" as the target -- initially.

2,407 posted on 01/16/2007 9:10:10 AM PST by sionnsar (†trad-anglican.faithweb.com†|Iran Azadi| 5yst3m 0wn3d - it's N0t Y0ur5 (SONY) | UN: Useless Nations)
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To: tuliptree76

Hey tulip.

Thats a great subject--the history of the ratification of the 16th Amendment.

I believe when the 16th Amendment was passed, income tax was meant to apply to non-labor income--dividends and profits and such. Over time it has morphed into the monstrosity we have now.

Too many people don't know about it, though.


2,408 posted on 01/16/2007 9:11:57 AM PST by rottndog (While reading this tag, remember Tens of Thousands of Americans are risking their lives for you.)
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