Which 'version' of the 'original' Hebrew are you talking about? The before or after Babylonian exile Hebrew?
It becomes blatantly obvious that much was lost in translation from Hebrew to Aramaic and then to Greek, once you actually spend time studying the scriptures, instead of studying the doctrines of man that is.
Greek is the language of Pagans in character and does not have the ability to carry over the original Hebrew meanings. Another reason of the importance to study the root of the message we were given.
the new testament was written in Greek.
But I serve a God who was able to uphold His promise to preserve His word for “all generations” in the original Greek in which it was originally written. The God I serve is much more reliable than the god you serve in that the God I serve keeps His promises and makes it possible to follow all of what He wants. Your god has obviously been unable to maintain a way for you to keep “all of Torah”. I’ll serve the reliable God that I can rely on. The God who kept His word and told us that we have the righteousness of God without the law.
Rom 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
It's still your job to prove that the Greek is a translation from Hebrew and Aramaic.
So far, you haven't presented a single scrap from a Hebrew or Aramaic New Testament that clearly predates the Greek.
I wonder why that might be?
I’m surprised it took this long (300+ replies) for this issue to come up on a thread like this. I’m also surprised that apparently everyone doesn’t know already you guys believe the (New Testament) Scriptures were originally written in Hebrew. It’s a key claim for your theology I’d say.
Here’s something I’ve always wondered about such a claim: if the Scriptures (NT portion) were indeed written in Hebrew originally, how can we be certain any etymological study will yield any truth?
I ask this for the obvious reason that no one claims to own these original Hebrew Scriptures (again for the NT portion). In addition, no Hebrew manuscripts exist that are older than the oldest Greek texts.
Thus, the only way “the original Hebrew” can be studied today is to translate the oldest Greek text into Hebrew. But that’s obviously not studying “the original Hebrew” since it’s a translation!
It seems to me given this conundrum, there really is no value in studying the Bible (NT portion) in Hebrew (or any language really). Sure the originals in the Greek are lost as well, but we have had for centuries the claim they were always written in Greek. It’s only been in relatively recent times that people have started to suggest they were in Hebrew.
Also, the oldest manuscripts by far are in Greek (even if they are just copies, they are still far older than any Hebrew manuscript, again for the NT portion of Scripture) so there’s no way to get nearly as close to the inspired original by studying a Hebrew translation of Greek.
So why not just study the Greek (where the NT is concerned. Obviously for the OT, a study of the Hebrew is best there). Greek is apparently the language that God has chosen to preserve historically, even if some older Hebrew manuscripts ever existed. That is, if the language of the originally inspired text was Hebrew, why did God let that be destroyed but yet let Greek texts remain, and how can we understand Scripture, from an etymological standpoint, by studying a Hebrew translation of the Greek? A translation is never inspired, in the strict sense.
Which 'version' of the 'original' Hebrew are you talking about? The before or after Babylonian exile Hebrew?
“instead of studying the doctrines of man that is. “
Spoken like a true cultist. Could have been spoken by a mormon, a Jehovah’s Witness, etc.
In this case, you also have the belief that Hebrew is a holy language. It is not.