There were 37 States in the Union at the time, so ratification by at least 28 was necessary to make the amendment an integral part of the Constitution. Actually, only 21 States legally ratified it. Link and here. (The second also cites the absence of the joint Resolution correctly following the Constitution.)
and subsequently used in jurisprudence,
So then if Obamacare [or it's USSC decision's "reasoning"] is "subsequently used in jurisprudence" it makes Obamacare valid?
What a load.
providing a Supreme Court approval to its ratification
Seriously? You're seriously going to say that the USSC has a part in amending the Constitution?
in addition to that of the various state legislatures and the congress.
Except that if the states's legislatures didn't approve it, then that is still invalid.
You one of them “fringe on the flag” loonies?
Who said anything about a flag?
Usually the people who make your sort of argument end up arguing that the court does not apply to them because the fringe on the court’s flag shows it is an admiralty court, and thus as a civilian, they can’t be charged in admiralty court. That is to say your argument is frivolous.
According to this site, as of 2003 every all 37 states in 1868 had radified the 14th Amendment.