Don't the liberals sententiously inform us (under the rubric of "multiculturalism") that all cultures are equal?
If so, why do so many liberals avoid Mississippi, Alabama, Texas, and other Southern states?
They contradict their claims by their own lives.
Secondly -- define "inferior": what is the yardstick? Average household income? Incidence of chlamydia per 1,000 women between the ages of 13 and 50? Percentage of adults above age 18 with a college degree or higher? Number of major league sports franchises?
In order to avoid spurious claims one is supposed to start with the null hypothesis: which in this case is supposed to be that all states are of equal quality. One might just as well ask someone who holds the superiority of California, to prove its superiority, rather than taking it as axiomatic (petitio principii.)
Incidentally -- regarding your response to the prior poster...no such things are proved as you asserted.
As a counterexample, consider the following anecdote from the now-defunct Games magazine, from memory:
A passenger train is going through some pastures and the passengers look out the window and see a brown cow.
1st passenger: Look! All cows are brown.
2nd passenger (college student): No, all cows in this country are brown.
3rd passenger (college graduate): No, all cows on this side of the train are brown.
4th passenger (Mensa member: No, all cows on this side of the train are brown on at least one side.
5th passenger (Games magazine reader): (triumphantly) No, all cows on this side of the train are brown on at least one side at least part of the time.
You overstated the living sh*t out of your case, dude.
Instead of prove you should have said may indicate.
Cheers!
Ah, I am trying to figure out which things you think I asserted, so we can be addressing the same points.
One assertion was that the original poster was trying to manipulate the FR system into "putting her 'friend' into her place,". Her words proved that -- I just restated them. Her approach of using FR associations to humiliate someone didn't seem to me to be a very high motive for her post. Is this the assertion you mean?
Did I miss making it clear that I was taking no position on the merits for or against her beloved home state? Not making an assertion there, but from a neutral position suggesting an avenue for her, I asked the question:
"Can you prove that Alabama culture is not inferior to, say, Massachusetts or California? If so, go to it!"
If she could, she would then have the answer to her predicament (without asking an FR participant from, say, Massachusetts, to help her (smile)).
You overstated the living sh*t out of your case, dude.
Instead of prove you should have said may indicate.
I certainly was not stating any case or making any assertion with that question. To think so would be reading something between the lines that is not there. In this, "prove" or "indicate" are irrelevant. To this, I don't see how your logic exercise applies.
But one assertion I was intending is that intelligence, education, and social maturity are correlated to speaking clearly, readily, and effectively. My initial response was that the originator, as an Alabaman, was in effect by her approach tending to support the conclusions of her opposition rather than vice versa! (A reader may have the perception that inarticulateness may indicate a lesser intelligence and or education level)
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Appreciate your posts to this, but could I please ask you to tell me what you assume I was asserting that you thought I overstated??