[AndrewC]

Yes, to the Jews it means and always meant Israel. Since the Jews wrote it supposedly, and since one Jew spoke to another Jew (especially to a Sanhedrin) that would be very clear.

The fact that you restate your assertion still fails to demonstrate its alleged truth.

Yes, the ἀναγεννάω (1 Peter 1:3) means regenerated, in this case associated with a new hope based on the resurrection and not some literal baptismal "new birth" of the spirit and water from above. Slightly different concept than John 3:3,5,7.

And in 1 Pet 1:23 it is associated with the "living word of enduring God", not the spirit or the water. So, clearly the concept, linguistically and conceptually different from John's "except one" [not man as some trnalsaitons say] is born form above?spirit/water/ he can inter Israel, but in Peter's rendition it is a hope given through the resurrection/living word of God. Night and day.

So you are admitting that Peter used the words "born again" in verse 23 even though you assert a different meaning for "ἀναγεννάω" in verse 3.

Yet your argument avers that John is made up. Well, Peter uses "born again", despite your argument that it is associated as the "living word of God"(John's concept) and not spirit or water. And then you conclude with the astonishing conclusion that Peter was talking about hope and not describing a quality demonstrated in his audience which it clearly is.

Final question if the Greek words presented up to now do not communicate "born again" or "reborn" what Greek words do?

[kosta50]

The fact that you restate your assertion still fails to demonstrate its alleged truth

Hardly mine, but I do understand why a Chritsian would be in dneial. From Jewish Encyclopedia

Targum to Zech. xiv. 9 and Ob. 21; "Malkut Shaddai " Reign or sovereignty of God as contrasted with the kingdom of the worldly powers. The hope that God will be King over all the earth, when all idolatry will be banished, is expressed in prophecy and song (Ex. xv. 18; Zech. xiv. 9; Isa. xxiv. 23, Iii. 7; Micah iv. 7; Ps. xxix. 10), and with special emphasis in the later Psalms (xciii.-xcix.). God's Kingdom is spoken of in Ps. xxii. 29 (A. V. 28), ciii. 19, cxlv. 11-13; Ob. 21; Dan. iii. 33 (A. V. iv. 3); Tobit, xiii. 1; Sibyllines, iii. 47-48, 767; Psalms of Solomon, xvii. 3; Wisdom, x. 10; Assumptio Mosis, x. 1; Song of the Three Holy Children, 33; Enoch, lxxxiv....The Kingdom of God, however, in order to be established on earth, requires recognition by man; that is, to use the Hasidæan phrase borrowed from Babylonia or Persia, man must "take upon himself the yoke of the Kingdom of God"

[kosta50]

So you are admitting that Peter used the words "born again" in verse 23 even though you assert a different meaning for "ἀναγεννάω" in verse 3.

It means regenerated in a figurative sense, which is quite different from John 3.

Yet your argument avers that John is made up

That the alleged conversation with Nicodemus was, yes.

"living word of God"(John's concept)

Peter's living and enduring word is not the Logos of John; the "word" in 1 Peter 1:23 is never capitalized Or do you not understand the fiference?):

"the living and enduring word of God. " (NIV)

The author means literally utterances of God.

And then you conclude with the astonishing conclusion

Astonishing, really?

Final question if the Greek words presented up to now do not communicate "born again" or "reborn" what Greek words do?

Change of mind.