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To: AndrewC; getoffmylawn
And your argument for this is a link which indicates that the definition/description for Israel contains the words God and Kingdom?

Yes, to the Jews it means and always meant Israel. Since the Jews wrote it supposedly, and since one Jew spoke to another Jew (especially to a Sanhedrin) that would be very clear.

you have never even acknowledged that Peter uses "ἀναγεννάω" BORN AGAIN

Yes, the ἀναγεννάω (1 Peter 1:3) means regenerated, in this case associated with a new hope based on the resurrection and not some literal baptismal "new birth" of the spirit and water from above. Slightly different concept than John 3:3,5,7.

And in 1 Pet 1:23 it is associated with the "living word of enduring God", not the spirit or the water. So, clearly the concept, linguistically and conceptually different from John's "except one" [not man as some trnalsaitons say] is born form above?spirit/water/ he can inter Israel, but in Peter's rendition it is a hope given through the resurrection/living word of God. Night and day.

3,408 posted on 06/16/2011 10:02:29 AM PDT by kosta50
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To: kosta50
Yes, to the Jews it means and always meant Israel. Since the Jews wrote it supposedly, and since one Jew spoke to another Jew (especially to a Sanhedrin) that would be very clear.

The fact that you restate your assertion still fails to demonstrate its alleged truth.

Yes, the ἀναγεννάω (1 Peter 1:3) means regenerated, in this case associated with a new hope based on the resurrection and not some literal baptismal "new birth" of the spirit and water from above. Slightly different concept than John 3:3,5,7.

And in 1 Pet 1:23 it is associated with the "living word of enduring God", not the spirit or the water. So, clearly the concept, linguistically and conceptually different from John's "except one" [not man as some trnalsaitons say] is born form above?spirit/water/ he can inter Israel, but in Peter's rendition it is a hope given through the resurrection/living word of God. Night and day.

So you are admitting that Peter used the words "born again" in verse 23 even though you assert a different meaning for "ἀναγεννάω" in verse 3.

Yet your argument avers that John is made up. Well, Peter uses "born again", despite your argument that it is associated as the "living word of God"(John's concept) and not spirit or water. And then you conclude with the astonishing conclusion that Peter was talking about hope and not describing a quality demonstrated in his audience which it clearly is.

Final question if the Greek words presented up to now do not communicate "born again" or "reborn" what Greek words do?

3,416 posted on 06/16/2011 10:57:07 AM PDT by AndrewC
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