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To: nobdysfool; Jean Chauvin; the_doc; jude24

Is that the total Kingdom? In it's entirety? Full-blown, complete, nothing lacking? ~ nobdysfool

I think you're talking Jesus' words to an extreme here, trying to have Him make an all-inclusive pronouncement when what He was doing was pointing out that by casting out devils, He was bringing the benefit of the Kingdom of God, in His person and authority, to those who experienced and witnessed the event. ~ nobdysfool

Woody.
749 posted on 11/27/2002 10:29:11 AM PST by CCWoody
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To: CCWoody
Do you think I can't read? Is that why you use such a big font? Or is that to impress everyone else with the

weight

of your words?

Does the verse literally say that if you see this sign then the kingdom of God is come unto us? Does the verse literally say that if the Lord casts out devils he must first bind the strong man Satan?

Yes, they do say that, precisely. But the first one DOES NOT say that ALL of the Kingdom of God has come unto us, and the second DOES NOT say that the binding of the Strong Man is the same as Rev 20:1-3

DOES IT?

You base your reading of that solely on the idea of binding. You see "bind the strong man", and you think, "Hmmm..Rev, 20 says that Satan will be bound, so that must be the same thing". Pretty lame if you ask me.

That's the problem here...you are reading into these verses your own view, the same way you accuse me of reading into Rev. 20 what I want to see. I also notice that you tag-team...I started out talking to Jean, and now suddenly I'm talking to CC...Who's next? the _doc? Or maybe jude24?

This is the weak spot in your Amil theology...the idea that the full Kingdom is already come, and that Satan is already bound per Rev. 20, and you have not one shred of real evidence to back that up, other than your myopic reading of Matt. 12:28 and Rev. 20:1-3. You have to go for rather odd interpretations of key words to make it fit, and you try to connect together disparate verses whose only commonality is a few words. You then try to say that they are talking about the same thing, when it is clear from the larger context that they are not.

You try to connect Rev. 20 with Matt 12:28 by pointing to the idea of binding the strong man, but if they truly were connected, then the binding in Rev. 20 happened BEFORE Christ went to the cross. Sorry, I don't think so, and I'll bet you don't either.

And, if the strong man is bound so that one can plunder his house, can the strong man do anything to cause trouble for the plunderer? I would say, NO! However, you say Satan is bound now, yet he still seems to be able to cause quite a bit of trouble even for God's Elect. Some binding!

The binding referred to in Rev 20 goes way beyond just tying up the strong man. It's tying him up, taking him to a maximum security prison, putting him in the Hole, and sealing the door shut, so he is incommunicado with anyone and everyone else. From that place, he can cause NO TROUBLE to those who are plundering his house...

CAN HE?


804 posted on 11/27/2002 2:09:56 PM PST by nobdysfool
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