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Is Prayer/Veneration/Worship to Mary Biblical?
self | 12-14-14 | ealgeone

Posted on 12/14/2014 11:57:21 AM PST by ealgeone

The reason for this article is to determine if the worship/veneration given to Mary by the catholic church is justified from a Biblical perspective. This will be evaluated using the Biblical standard and not man’s standard.


TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; Charismatic Christian; Evangelical Christian; Theology
KEYWORDS: bible; blessedvirginmary; catholic; mary; mystery; mysterybabylon; prayer; rcinventions; vanities; vanity; worship
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To: caww
if you choose the path to Mary you're on the wrong road

The path is not to Mary it is through Mary, the first human to keep and hear the Word.

361 posted on 12/15/2014 7:31:41 AM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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To: CynicalBear
Why did the Holy Spirit have them put the untill in there?

Well, now you've done it! Get ready to hear that until has also been redefined by Catholicism in 3...2...1.

Anything to keep the narrative going.

362 posted on 12/15/2014 7:31:56 AM PST by ealgeone
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To: ealgeone

Who removed Canonical texts? I am pretty sure it wasn’t the Catholic Church. Instead, Luther in 1534, decided the Canon needed to be changed. And changed to suit his novel teachings. Those who followed Luther in turning their backs on the church Christ founded, were the ones who were developing novel clarifications.

The Catholic Church has been clarifying for 2000 years. It is the only continuous Church to be doing so. Our Orthodox brothers have also been doing so for 1000 years. In both cases, people DID speak and read the original languages, and that is how the doctrine and clarifications developed.

It was renowned linguist, St. Jerome (347-420 AD), who translated the books of the Bible into a single language, Latin. The Jerusalem Bible, as it continues to be known, was THE definitive Bible for centuries. Other translations, in other languages, such as the Douay-Rheims, were not only based upon not only the Jerusalem Bible, but also the original texts as well.

As mentioned above, it was 1534 years after Jesus that Luther decided, and others followed, to create novel doctrine, based upon a corrupted, and incomplete canon.


363 posted on 12/15/2014 7:32:44 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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To: redleghunter
something that is not there

What is your theory? What IS there?

364 posted on 12/15/2014 7:32:48 AM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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To: LurkingSince'98

So what?


365 posted on 12/15/2014 7:32:51 AM PST by ealgeone
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To: SpirituTuo
>>Perhaps you should re-consider your statement in light of the commandment to bear no false witness.<<

Are you denying that Catholics bow down to graven images?

366 posted on 12/15/2014 7:33:00 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: RoosterRedux

But you are not addressing the point, which is that words the Church has used to express its beliefs and praise exist outside of the canon.

As you likely use words outside of the canon to worship God, that doesn’t make you heretical, any more than Catholics using words of praise.


367 posted on 12/15/2014 7:35:04 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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To: SpirituTuo; ealgeone
>>It was renowned linguist, St. Jerome (347-420 AD), who translated the books of the Bible into a single language, Latin.<<

Which has been proven over and over again not to be true to the original language.

368 posted on 12/15/2014 7:37:36 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: SpirituTuo
Who removed Canonical texts?

What part of the NT was changed?

It was renowned linguist, St. Jerome (347-420 AD), who translated the books of the Bible into a single language, Latin.

Actually the Vulgate is well known to have translation issues. Your own catholic encyclopedia acknowledges this.

Yep...put it in latin so the masses couldn't read it for themselves.

369 posted on 12/15/2014 7:38:12 AM PST by ealgeone
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To: ShadowAce

What does it say then?

Fellow citizens and saints with the household of God. The household of God would be Angels, who serve in the presence of God. We, both physically and spiritually alive, are citizens with the angels. That is pretty clear, and I am using the KJV.

What value is it to be a fellow citizen with angels, whether in flesh or spirit, if we can not aid another?


370 posted on 12/15/2014 7:39:34 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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To: CynicalBear

Every Catholic belief is fully supported in the Holy Bible. That would be the unaltered Holy Bible, not the one Luther used post 1534.


371 posted on 12/15/2014 7:40:39 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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To: CynicalBear

please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.

and please post your source for the original text so we know the provenance

AMDG


372 posted on 12/15/2014 7:40:45 AM PST by LurkingSince'98 (Ad Majoram Dei Gloriam = FOR THE GREATER GLORY OF GOD)
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To: CynicalBear

Different argument for a different time. I will leave it with this. The use of until in Bible, is found to have more than one grammatical meaning. It is not limited to how we use it in modern English.


373 posted on 12/15/2014 7:42:09 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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To: SpirituTuo
>>Every Catholic belief is fully supported in the Holy Bible.<<

Please show where the apostles taught the assumption of Mary.

374 posted on 12/15/2014 7:42:24 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: NYer; metmom
The woman was actually complimenting Jesus, not Mary

She venerated Mary and she praised Jesus. That is the pattern in most if not all Marian prayers:

Hail Mary, full of grace
Blessed art thou among women
And blessed is the fruit of thy womb, Jesus
Holy Mary, Mother of God, pray for us sinners
Now and in the hour of our death

The woman's prayer concentrated on the physical aspect of Mary's relationship to Jesus. That is why Jesus corrected her and offered His own prayer to His Blessed Mother: "Blessed is Mary and everyone who hears the Word and keeps It". That is the first Marian prayer. It gave us the proper form to venerate Mary for her spiritual feat and it expanded the future Church Triumphant to many saints alongside Mary.

375 posted on 12/15/2014 7:42:34 AM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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To: Elsie

See my previous post.


376 posted on 12/15/2014 7:43:11 AM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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To: LurkingSince'98
>>please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.<<

No where in scripture is Mary described as being "full of grace". Only two people were described as "full of grace". They were Jesus and Stephen. Jerome inserted that Mary was "full of grace".

377 posted on 12/15/2014 7:44:45 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: CynicalBear

I am absolutely denying it, and stating for the umpteenth time that Catholics do not “bow down to graven images,” and all that connotes.

Please read the following, approved, teaching on this.

http://www.catholic.com/tracts/do-catholics-worship-statues


378 posted on 12/15/2014 7:45:05 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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To: LurkingSince'98
please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.

http://www.catholic.org/encyclopedia/view.php?id=6056

This is regarding the immaculate conception.

No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption, mentions also the Mother of the Redeemer. The sentence against the first parents was accompanied by the Earliest Gospel ( Proto-evangelium ), which put enmity between the serpent and the woman : "and I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she (he) shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her (his) heel" ( Genesis 3:15 ). The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically.

Next question please.

379 posted on 12/15/2014 7:47:09 AM PST by ealgeone
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To: knarf

Could your question be related to the fact that you do not believe in the Trinity? Just curious...


380 posted on 12/15/2014 7:47:15 AM PST by SumProVita (Cogito, ergo....Sum Pro Vita - Modified Descartes)
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