To: Mark Bahner; OrthodoxPresbyterian
"1. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction." I'm sure a good case could be made that the folks who wrote that probably weren't THINKING about conscripted military service as being "involuntary servitude." But it clearly IS. So should we follow the letter of the Constitution, or not?
I think we should follow the constitution. The language you point out, as you mention, probably will be interpreted to relate to a bygone slavery/servitude economic system.
It is POSSIBLE that it could be interpreted to cover involuntary military conscription, but it hasn't been used that way up to this point, even though it could have been.
My point is that to get the language you want, you will probably have to amend the constitution regarding the selective service draft.
There is no language currently in the Constitution that MUST MEAN that a draft is inappropriate.
77 posted on
07/25/2002 4:59:39 PM PDT by
xzins
To: xzins
"I think we should follow the constitution."
Well, the Constitution says "involuntary servitude" is forbidden.
"My point is that to get the language you want, you will probably have to amend the constitution regarding the selective service draft."
You mean like, "Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction"...."this includes involuntary servitude resulting from military conscription"?
Isn't that sort of like making an amendment that says, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press;..."..."this includes laws about virtual child pornography."?
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson