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Mary, Mother of God
The Sacred Page ^ | December 29, 2015

Posted on 12/31/2015 4:29:48 PM PST by NYer

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To: Arthur McGowan
Because you strenuously argue against beliefs that only a moron WOULD believe: that Mary is the mother of God the Father; that Mary is the mother of the Trinity.

Show me the post where I used the term *moron*. If you're going to put words in my mouth, provide the link to prove that what you are claiming about me is true.

441 posted on 01/04/2016 4:10:31 PM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: metmom

Where does Scripture teach that it is forbidden to invent new titles for anyone?

It is not “unfaithful to Scripture” to call Mary “the mother of God,” because Scripture teaches that:

Mary is the mother of Jesus.
Jesus is God (i.e., the Word).

Anything that is logically REQUIRED by what is in Scripture is taught by the Scripture.

Therefore, Scripture TEACHES that Mary is the mother of God.

Scripture TEACHES that Mary is the mother of God even though Scripture does not use “mother of God” as a title for Mary.


442 posted on 01/04/2016 4:11:10 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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To: verga

I’m not talking about that angle. And yes they did have problems. And yes they introduce a lot of heresies. Two of which we’ve been discussing on this thread.


443 posted on 01/04/2016 4:12:34 PM PST by ealgeone
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To: Arthur McGowan

Changing the Word of God is being unfaithful to it.

It is also making a statement that the work of the Holy Spirit was not accurate or adequate and therefore needs amending.

That takes a lot of chutzpah.


444 posted on 01/04/2016 4:13:05 PM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: Arthur McGowan; metmom
If a person were to be conceived without Original Sin, that person would have been saved from Original Sin. And thus, it would be true to say that she had a Savior.

But, since she was saved from Original Sin by her Savior, she would never have committed a personal sin, and so would not be a “sinner.”

Thus, she would be a sinless person who was saved, by her Savior.

Thus, Mary’s reference to “God my savior” does not imply that she was a sinner

This "logic" is about as twisted as it comes. Mary was born. She was human. Thus, she was born into Original Sin because EVERYONE since the Fall has been born into Original Sin with ONE EXCEPTION: JESUS CHRIST.

The fact that she was saved and called God her "savior" IMPLIES EXACTLY that she was a sinner.

The only way your logic works is if you are in Bizarro World.

Hoss

445 posted on 01/04/2016 4:15:08 PM PST by HossB86 (Christ, and Him alone.)
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To: Arthur McGowan

The Bible says, “all have sinned”. It did not say except Mary.


446 posted on 01/04/2016 4:15:51 PM PST by MamaB (Heb. 13:ump.2)
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To: metmom

I never said you used the word “moron.”

I said that in order for there to be a danger that people would believe the stupid propositions that Mary is the mother of God the Father or that Mary is the mother of the Trinity, they would have to be morons.

Thus, the danger that you are so concerned about is non-existent. I.e., nobody is stupid enough to fall into the errors you are strenuously warning against.

Your false charge that I said you used the word “moron” shows me that you are not above feigning indignation in order to create a distraction.


447 posted on 01/04/2016 4:17:43 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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To: Arthur McGowan; metmom

I’m not sure what they teach in catholic seminaries but Greek doesn’t appear to be a priority. Douay-Rheims continues with the incorrect translation of Gabriel’s greeting to Mary.....though they’ve been shown this error over and over and over again.


448 posted on 01/04/2016 4:18:34 PM PST by ealgeone
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To: Arthur McGowan

So why is the term *mother of Jesus* as the Holy Spirit inspired the writers of Scripture to use, NOT adequate and why do Catholics feel it needs or needed changing?


449 posted on 01/04/2016 4:20:23 PM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: MamaB

So what? It wasn’t talking about Mary at that point, and it wasn’t written for her to hear or read. Mary’s life on earth ended before the New Testament was written.

Everyone who has ever heard or read that passage of Scripture HAS sinned. It was addressed to them, not Mary.


450 posted on 01/04/2016 4:20:42 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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To: Arthur McGowan; metmom
Where does Scripture teach that it is forbidden to invent new titles for anyone?

Arguing from silence is not a wise move. That can make Scripture, God's inerrant Word, nearly worthless.

But wait, Catholicism doesn't really care about Scripture.

Never mind....

Hoss

451 posted on 01/04/2016 4:21:05 PM PST by HossB86 (Christ, and Him alone.)
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To: Arthur McGowan; MamaB
So what? It wasn’t talking about Mary at that point, and it wasn’t written for her to hear or read. Mary’s life on earth ended before the New Testament was written.

Proof?

Where in Scripture does it indicate that Mary was "assumed" into Heaven?

???

Hoss

452 posted on 01/04/2016 4:22:50 PM PST by HossB86 (Christ, and Him alone.)
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To: Arthur McGowan

Is Mary the Mother of The Holy Spirit?


453 posted on 01/04/2016 4:23:10 PM PST by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: metmom
So why is the term *mother of Jesus* as the Holy Spirit inspired the writers of Scripture to use, NOT adequate and why do Catholics feel it needs or needed changing?

Oh, now... Met... you know the reason!

They know BETTER than God!

:D

Hoss

454 posted on 01/04/2016 4:23:54 PM PST by HossB86 (Christ, and Him alone.)
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To: Arthur McGowan

Mary was still on earth when some of the passages in Scripture were being written.


455 posted on 01/04/2016 4:26:13 PM PST by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: Arthur McGowan; metmom

Go easy on the use of moron. You’re close to making it personal. Just a friendly suggestion.


456 posted on 01/04/2016 4:32:30 PM PST by ealgeone
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To: ealgeone

I used the word “moron” to refer to Christians living in the Fourth Century. And I said they were NOT morons.

I don’t think any Fourth Century Christians are going to be complaining to the mods.


457 posted on 01/04/2016 4:36:06 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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To: HossB86

I’d love to have someone explain to me how using a more ambiguous term to describe someone or something ever makes the subject clearer.


458 posted on 01/04/2016 4:37:21 PM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: MHGinTN

The earliest stuff. But nobody knew they were Scripture until they had been used in the liturgy for a couple of centuries. And none of the writings were written for Mary’s benefit.


459 posted on 01/04/2016 4:37:25 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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To: MHGinTN

Of course not.


460 posted on 01/04/2016 4:38:12 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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