Posted on 04/08/2010 2:47:10 PM PDT by The Ignorant Fisherman
Should be a short article.
Matthew 1:18-25 say nothing on what happened after Jesus was born. Read what is written and don’t fantacize about it.
No she didn't. Every time Jesus's "brother" is mentioned by name, whe know who his mother is, and she is not Mary.
"Immaculate conception", by the way, refers to the conception of Mary, not of Jesus.
A question that has always intrigued me wasshalom b'SHEM Yah'shua HaMashiach
why do some Christians require goddess worship ?The need to create something that does not exist in the Word.
it is! that is my point. as I started to read the Bible as a young Catholic I thought to my self.....WHERE IS MARY!!!! The truth has set me free indeed!
It’s all about Jesus.
Exactly. Like I said, nothing about Joseph following the birth of Jesus.
What “is there”?
Regarding focusing on Mary, you are the one who posted the article.
It is IN there... the truth...
...without reference to 1 Luke 28.
I have never seen an English New Testament that actually reads UNION were KNEW HER was in that verse. What Version did you use. I personally own several translations. Anyway it usually reads different. It means only that Joseph had nothing to do with the conception of Jesus. It implies nothing as to what happened afterward. Thats why it is stated so you knew it was the virgin woman from the Book of Isaiah prediction. Its not stating That There was sex later. That wording is used alot in the old testament. I believe in 2samuel 6:23 It reads in some translation Michal had no children until her death. Does that mean she had children after death?
To: The Ignorant Fisherman
An attack on the Immaculate Conception and the perpetual virginity of Mary.
The Immaculate Conception doctrine is debatable among Christians, but Mary’s perpetual virginity has always been Christian tradition. To claim that the Bible teaches against it is simply false.
The larger question, I suppose, is why some who imagine themselves Christian feel the need to be so strongly schismatic.
HERE”S GOOD CATHOLIC VIEWS BIBLICAL EVIDENCE FOR THE PERPETUAL VIRGINITY OF MARYhttp://socrates58.blogspot.com/2010/02/biblical-evidence-for-perpetual.html -http://socrates58.blogspot.com/2008/11/who-wrote-book-of-james-james-lords.html
The First born son is written that you know that he is a Priest. Because the First born son is given into service of the Lord in the Levitical Law. Its not proof of brothers or sisters. Its really an expression phrase denotes for the Priesthood.Thats why the Gospel writers have it in there to emphasize. Since he is a priest in the order of mecizacdech.Which also explains why theres not much written from 12 to 30 because his levitical priesthood starts and ends when he is 30 to 33 years old as required. He can and is the only child of Mary. May God Bless and Guide You
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