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To: Non-Sequitur
Incorrect yet again.

The Southern states had begun trying as early as 1814.

By 1861, it was impossible for the South to do anything but submit or leave.

The Constitution establishes a limited government of enumerated powers. The enumeration of certain powers was very specifically and precisely noted not to deny nor disparage others retained by the States and the People.

If there's nothing in the Constitution about a topic, it is unconstitutional for the federal government to act upon it.
455 posted on 10/02/2003 8:12:40 AM PDT by Maelstrom (To prevent misinterpretation or abuse of the Constitution:The Bill of Rights limits government power)
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To: Maelstrom
If there's nothing in the Constitution about a topic, it is unconstitutional for the federal government to act upon it.

Article III, Section 2 grants the Supreme Court the authority "--to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;--to Controversies between two or more States;-- between a State and Citizens of another State;--between Citizens of different States;--between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects." In Article IV, quoted in full above, grants Congress the power to regulate the territory and other property belonging to the United States. Article VI says that, "all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."

How can a state secede if it is bound to uphold all treaties made under the Authority of the United States as the supreme "Law of the Land", even above the Constitution and the laws of taht state?

474 posted on 10/02/2003 9:13:47 AM PDT by Question_Assumptions
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To: Maelstrom
If there's nothing in the Constitution about a topic, it is unconstitutional for the federal government to act upon it.

Article III, Section 2 grants the Supreme Court the authority "--to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;--to Controversies between two or more States;-- between a State and Citizens of another State;--between Citizens of different States;--between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects." In Article IV, quoted in full above, grants Congress the power to regulate the territory and other property belonging to the United States. Article VI says that, "all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."

How can a state secede if it is bound to uphold all treaties made under the Authority of the United States as the supreme "Law of the Land", even above the Constitution and the laws of taht state?

475 posted on 10/02/2003 9:14:07 AM PDT by Question_Assumptions
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