Thanks for posting the entire relevant section. I read the thread up to this point and I'm still not sure who's accusing whom of what. Reading your post did bring up a couple questions in my mind.
. . .Any physician who, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, knowingly performs . . .
If a doctor performs a partial birth abortion, how is it to be proved that that act is in, or affect interstate commerce or not? If the procedure is judged not in, or affects interstate commerce, the doctor walks?
How exactly does that apply?
Regarding section 1531, the definition of partial birth abortion as used in that section, does this mean that any less than the entire head is exposed, or the legs and pelvis only of the child are exposed, the abortion can be performed?
I read it over several times and that's what it says to me. What am I missing?
I do not pretend to understand the whole interstate commerce thing. I have to trust that the writers of these laws know what they are doing and put out a bill which closes as many loopholes as humanly possible. Certainly, I trust that the sponsors of this bill, like Senator Santorum, aren't going to pass a bill that will not have the desired effect.
Regarding section 1531, the definition of partial birth abortion as used in that section, does this mean that any less than the entire head is exposed, or the legs and pelvis only of the child are exposed, the abortion can be performed? I'm so tired and this makes me so sick...did anyone answer your question???
What if NO PART of the "Fetus" is delivered, can they just go up and kill it in the uterous and what they can come up with a poison/radiation ..I don't know, anything???
Isn't it the KILLING of the fetus(BABY!!!!) that is the issue..not where it is when you kill it??