. . .Any physician who, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, knowingly performs . . .
If a doctor performs a partial birth abortion, how is it to be proved that that act is in, or affect interstate commerce or not? If the procedure is judged not in, or affects interstate commerce, the doctor walks?
How exactly does that apply?
Regarding section 1531, the definition of partial birth abortion as used in that section, does this mean that any less than the entire head is exposed, or the legs and pelvis only of the child are exposed, the abortion can be performed?
I read it over several times and that's what it says to me. What am I missing?
I'm so tired and this makes me so sick...did anyone answer your question???
What if NO PART of the "Fetus" is delivered, can they just go up and kill it in the uterous and what they can come up with a poison/radiation ..I don't know, anything???
Isn't it the KILLING of the fetus(BABY!!!!) that is the issue..not where it is when you kill it??