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To: Pharmboy
This whole thing is really dubious. Accounts of the Milesian conquest of Ireland and the archeological evidence of the prior occupants place the arrival of the Celts well inside the first millenium BC. Put that up against 30 words? I don't think so. Furthermore, the migration of the Celts from Scythia through the Mediterranean, Egypt, Rome (where their presence is documented) through to Galicia in Spain and on to Ireland is pretty compelling.
25 posted on 07/01/2003 6:33:47 AM PDT by Nubbytwanger
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To: Nubbytwanger
Clearly the Milesians made use of the existing stock of Gaelic speaking womenfolk in Ireland. The result was the development of a creole language with elements of both, and possibly more elements from the mothers than from the fathers (the mothers being the children's first language teachers).

In any case, no one has ever credited the Milesians with having imposed their language on the Irish, just their rule! This is typical of many conquest situations.

I am not sure why you want the Milesians to come from Galicia (in Anatolia) when it is clear that both the Milesians and the Galicians both came from the same location further West, mainly what we now call Bulgaria and possibly even Ukraine. The blind poet Homer pretty well covered the destruction of the Milesian colony at Illium (Allium) by the more primitive Greeks. That Scythians adopted Celtic culture, weapons and words is beyond dispute. It is an ironclad rule that those who are less technologically developed obtain both the devices and the words from those with the more advanced technology.

The library at Ebla, which provided us with our first historic (and non-Biblical) references to King David also provided us with messages from Celtic kings in the near Middle East to each other and to the folks at Ebla. They were written in a Celtic language.

38 posted on 07/01/2003 7:01:47 AM PDT by muawiyah
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To: Nubbytwanger
"Furthermore, the migration of the Celts from Scythia through the Mediterranean, Egypt, Rome (where their presence is documented) through to Galicia in Spain and on to Ireland is pretty compelling."

Although the Indo-Europeans may have originated in eastern Europe, all evidence indicates the Celts originated in central Europe, in what is now Austria and neighboring areas. They then spread south into north Italy (Cisapline Gaul, west into Switzerland and Gaul, southwest into northern Spain (the Celt-Iberians) and across the English Channel or Bay of Biscay into the British Isles. Another group spread south and east into Anatolia (see the Galatians in the Bible) and even as far as Egypt where they served as mercenaries.

From what I have read, the Celtic and Italic languages are actually closest to each other, both are closer to Tocharian, and Germaic is closer to them than it is to the Balto-Slavic languages.


61 posted on 07/01/2003 8:21:08 AM PDT by ZULU
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