You're so wrong, but I will concede the point since it's irrelevant to this case.
I contend sodomy laws pre 1960 were for homosexuals because no right minded person thought any different and yet here we are.
Are you saying that heterosexuals have not been punished for becoming involved in oral or anal sex?
There’s no part time pathologies, either you have the disorder of same sex attraction or you don’t…either you have child sexual attraction you don’t, there’s no such thing as a hetero-pedo-sexual.
Are you saying that heterosexuals have not been punished for becoming involved in oral or anal sex?
Outside of public sex, I think not but those legislatures that make that distinction in their law clearly did so to avoid what happened today. And I would presume put the “equivalence” laws on the books post 1960 and probably since 1980.