The Bible contains the objective facts surrounding the Joshua incident and illustrates it's moral significance. I've already told you that the Bible as a guide to morality is axiomatic.
Ah... simply declare the God of Abraham to be "Satan" when worshipped by your rivals, and all is well.
Nice and tidy... Yes the truth is often that way.
Please explain how those facts change the moral implications of Joshua's actions.
The city was conquered.
And Joshua went on to slit the throats of the defenseless women and children thereafter.
What "objective facts" demonstrate it's "moral significance"?
Help a poor sinner like me understand.