No, what I'm suggesting is that if the lion's share of imports were destined for southern southern consumers then those goods would have entered through southern ports. The fact that 19 out of every 20 dollars in imports came to the North indicates that demand down south for those goods was virtually non-existent.
Then does that mean that demand for imports in Tennessee, Arkansas, Kentucky, Missouri, Iowa, Kansas, Vermont, or any of the other inland states and regions was non-existant? I ask because the reason upon which you make your above assertion holds demand for those goods to be determined strictly by their port of entry.