The study is saying that an HIV-positive person and HIV-negative person could have sex for fifty years, and if they “always” used condoms, there is a LESS THAN ONE PERCENT chance of the negative person becoming positive.I guess it's also saying, then, that an HIV-positive person and HIV-negative person could have sex for fifty years, and if they "never" used condoms, there is LESS THAN SEVEN PERCENT chance of the negative person becoming positive.
5.8 (i.e., the difference between 6.7 and .9) divided by 6.7 is 86.6%.
Meaning that condom use is indeed ineffective in preventing HIV transmission 13.4% of the time. Why anyone would call that a distortion is beyond me.