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To: cicero's_son
Did German forces occupy a significant portion of France during WWI?
31 posted on 02/12/2003 10:11:33 AM PST by RoughDobermann
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To: RoughDobermann
The short answer is, it depends on what you consider to be France. ;-)

The Austrians actually sued for a negotiated settlement, with the endorsement of the Pope, but President Wilson refused to allow anything but an "unconditional surrender" modeled on Appomattox. The French (along with the Germans and the Austrians) paid for the American President's intransigence with millions more unnecessary casualties and the wholesale destruction of what used to be called Christendom.

Less than 20 years later, an embittered young house painter named Adolph Hitler stepped into the vacuum left by the Habsburgs and flooded Europe with the blood of millions more innocents on all sides.

The point of all this being, again, that history is never so simple as our primitive modern textbooks suggest.

Do we "owe" the French eternal loyalty for their invaluable aid at Yorktown? Of course not. No more than the French "owe" us eternal loyalty for our role in WWII.

33 posted on 02/12/2003 10:36:16 AM PST by cicero's_son
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