He is unable to find or recall any documents which indicate that there was a 'forcible' aspect to the kneeling apparently arising in the 8th/9th centuries.
Part of the larger problem is that there is simply little (or no) documentation to support the "factual" statements of liturgical reformers. They simply propound that "XYZ is fact" and we are supposed to accept it as so. When research demonstrates that either it is NOT fact, or that it is merely speculation, the credibility of the reformers is eroded.
You may recall that 15 years ago, "reformers" postulated (as fact) that not only were priests married until some draconian disciplinarian stopped the practice--but that there were "deaconesses," which were ladies who were ordained.
Five years later a scholar refuted every single "fact" that the reformers had postulated--and he did it with documentary and irrefutable evidence. While it was a fact that some priests were married, they gave up relations with their wives. There were 'deaconesses,' but the title did NOT indicate ordination--rather, a vocation (in this case, health-care.)
But in this discussion, you have made the statement, thus you still have the obligation to prove: that the laity were "forced" to kneel against their tradition.
Ball's in your court.
Ecumenical Council supresses tradition. Prolly there was the SSPM (Societ of Pope St. Melchaides) formed to protest the supression of traditon; who knows?
Our friend Fr. Jungmann cites Geilmann, "Die Abenmahlslehre" 21-36, infra, Vol 11, Chap. 1,3 and Vol. 11, Chap 3,13 re the imposition of kneeling
The ball has been back-handed down the line and it kicked-up some chalk :)<>