[general_re]

The problem is, in terms of the 2'nd Amendment being binding on the states, that's a perfectly valid and supportable interpretation. The courts have never found the 2'nd to apply to the states, and the only way they can do so is to incorporate it via the 14'th. But to accept the results of that is to implicitly accept the 14'th as valid and proper.

[Dog Gone]

Constitutional amendments are intrinsicly valid and proper. It is impossible for an amendment to be unconstitutional, and I've never understood the logic in arguing otherwise.