I've seen different translations of the same psalm, some of which muddy the waters (as it were).
GoreMMM's statement is not qualified in any way, so I would assume that in addition to being authoritative in the matter, it's also all-inclusive.
Jesus used it as an argument against those that accused him of blasphemy.
Jhn 10:30 "I and the Father are one."
Jhn 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him.
Jhn 10:32 Jesus answered them, "I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?"
Jhn 10:33 The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God."
Jhn 10:34 Jesus answered them, "Has it not been written in your Law, 'I SAID, YOU ARE GODS '?
Jhn 10:35 "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken ),
Jhn 10:36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God '?
Jhn 10:37 "If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me;
Jhn 10:38 but if I do them, though you do not believe Me, believe the works, so that you may know and understand that the Father is in Me, and I in the Father."