Replies

Could this have all started when women were given (and took) the right to vote?

Pardon me, but if you know anything about history, that is such a stupid thing to say.

The fact is, that the time period when "men-only" had the right to vote was extremely short in all of human history. There was not even one lifetime, 1789-1859, that "some" men and no women could vote. There was never any long period of time in America when men could vote and women could not.

The system of only men voting was only from 1789 to the 1850's, when the first states gave women the right to vote. Furthermore, in 1789, and into the early 1800's, only a few men, white property owners, etc, had the right to vote, but not most men. By the time when most men did have the right to vote, in the middle 1800's, quite a few states, were already started granting the vote to women, Kansas, Utah, Wyoming, etc.

that is such a stupid thing to say

Read my post again, waterstraat.

I posed a **QUESTION** because I was too busy to think it through.

I still think it is a valid question, and your response was irrelevant IMHO.

Note that The Seneca Falls Convention happened right about when women were starting to get the vote in some states. At Seneca Falls, early feminists made innumerable demands. Just goes to show, "If you give a mouse a cookie..."