>Jews acknowledged that that the prophetic gifts had ceased in Israel in the 5th century B.C.
Could you expand on this topic a bit, please.
1 Maccabees 9:27 states that "there had not been such great distress in Israel since the time prophets ceased to appear among the people." Thus, it seems to disavow any later claims to its own canonicity! I mistaken attributed this to 2 Maccabees in a fit of mistyping in an earlier post. I make amends here by providing a link to the U.S. Catholic Bishops' New American Bible.
Josephus wrote that "It is true, our history hath been written since Artaxerxes very particularly, but hath not been esteemed of the like authority with the former by our forefathers, because there hath not been an exact succession of prophets since that time." (
Antiquities, Against Apion 1:8).
Seder Olam Rabbah 30 states that "until [Alexander the Great] the prophets prophesied through the Holy Spirit. From then on, 'Incline thine ear and hear the words of the wise.'"