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To: Viva Le Dissention
The Supreme Court has not "incorporated" the 2nd amendment to apply to the states, as it has the 1st, 4th, 5th, parts of the 6th and 7th, etc.

Let's walk through some simple reasoning: The 2nd amendment is a part of the Constitution of the Unites States. Article VI, Clause 2 of the Constitution states: This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.

I reread the Constitution, including the amendments which are a part of it, and can't find anywhere that suggests the Supremacy Clause only applies to parts of the Constitution that judges declare it to. Thus, "This Constitution... shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.

What part of that does the CA attorney general not understand?

51 posted on 09/20/2002 7:31:06 AM PDT by Gunslingr3
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To: Gunslingr3
That's what I thought too.
69 posted on 09/20/2002 7:44:40 AM PDT by Former Proud Canadian
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