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2 Timothy 3:16-17, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works."

The "man of God" referred to here is priests. Scripture is God's Word, no doubt about that. But the Bible doesn't tell us what books constitute the canon of Scripture, the Church does. The Bible calls the Church the "pillar and foundation of truth."

Regardless, this passage can't be referring to the New Testament because the New Testament simply didn't exist when this passage was written. The New Testament canon wasn't finally settled until around the year 400.

You seem to imply that only priests can glean a thorough equipping from scripture. That's a shame.

With regard to the OT vs the NT, I fail to understand what that has to do with my original train of thought. With that in mind, however, the verse in Timothy most certainly COULD be referring to the whole of scripture as we know it today - since when is God bound by the limits of time? HE knew what would become canon and could very well have divinely inspired Paul to write this with the whole of scripture in mind.

Anyway, hope you have a great afternoon and thanks for the response.