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To: 4ConservativeJustices
Then prove it to be unconstitutional.
140 posted on 08/24/2002 6:09:51 PM PDT by Luis Gonzalez
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To: Luis Gonzalez
Then prove it to be unconstitutional.

What - you want folks like x42 & #97, Reno et al to singlehandedly have the power to invade a foreign country, or to send Reno into Waco to slaughter men, women and children? Should a President have the power to send armed forces against another Randy Weaver over a specious charge, and kill his child, dog and wife simply on a whim?

Where in the Constitution does it grant power to kidnap a child from his home with military forces a la Elian Gonzalez, abandoning Constitutional methods of resolving disputes. We have a judiciary for a reason, to rule on matters in doubt:

"The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority; to all Cases ... between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects."
US Constitution, Article III, Section 2.
Again, I have no problem with the President defending our country - that's his function. Attacking and invading a foreign nation is not defense - it's offensive. And for that, Congress must declare war.

The courts have jurisdiction, now have they ever answered this very question? The section of the Constitution granting the power claimed is in Article I, which states that "All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives."

Numerous decisions by SCOTUS have held that the exercise of enumerated powers contained in Article I cannot be delegated, or suspended. Amomg them ex parte Merryman, ex parte Milligan, the Prize Cases, Ex parte Bollman and Swartwout and others.

Please note that I highlighted the term "vested" in Article I. To vest means to grant an absolute right (present and future). But rather than you accept my word on it, how about I allow the words of US Supreme Court Justice John Jay speak instead?

The same expression, "shall be vested," occurs in other parts of the Constitution in defining the powers of the other coordinate branches of the Government. The first article declares that "all legislative powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States." Will it be contended that the legislative power is not absolutely vested? that the words merely refer to some future act, and mean only that the legislative power may hereafter be vested? The second article declares that "the executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States of America." Could Congress vest it in any other person, or is it to await their good pleasure whether it is to vest at all? It is apparent that such a construction, in either case, would be utterly inadmissible."
Justice Jay, Martin v. Hunter's Lessee, 14 U.S. 304, (1816)

Freegards.

143 posted on 08/24/2002 8:31:25 PM PDT by 4CJ
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