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To: VRWC_minion
Government costs money. Someone must pay. The proper allocation of who pays is subject to debate. The allegory starting this thread implies that it is somehow obvious that the rich pay too much (or, at least enough). My original point, which is quite objective, is that even if you assume that income is the appropriate basis for all taxes, knowing that a particular group pays 40% of the taxes is not sufficient information to determine whether that group deserves 40% of a tax cut until you determine the portion of income they receive. If they receive 35%, they may deserve more than 40% back; if they earn 60% of the income, they are entitled to less than 40% back.

Is there something about my above clarification that you disagree with it? If so, what, specifically, and why?

46 posted on 08/05/2002 10:59:19 AM PDT by Deuce
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To: Deuce
The allegory starting this thread implies that it is somehow obvious that the rich pay too much (or, at least enough).

That wasn't my impression. I thought the allegory was intended to answer the question about why when lowering the taxes the rich should get a larger share of the refund. It was my impression that rather than arguing that point your posts were intended to switch the subject to one that you felt more comfortable arguing.

My original point, which is quite objective, is that even if you assume that income is the appropriate basis for all taxes, knowing that a particular group pays 40% of the taxes is not sufficient information to determine whether that group deserves 40% of a tax cut until you determine the portion of income they receive.

The statement you fashioned uses the word "deserves". As such it is an undefined term and can mean different things to different people. It would be nice if you provided a definition. If you in fact wish to imply that we should endeavor to place a use tax on those whose who use the various services that the government provides I would be willing to listen to that. But in as much as the subject of this thread is lowering a tax based on incomes and not services you would be mixing one form of tax to justify another form. This is a form of straw man argument. If you wanted to be true to your analysis and expand the scope to look at taxes based on government use of services you would and must take a full picture of it. Lets factor in the propery taxes, excise taxes, road use, UC payroll tax, sales tax, telephone taxes, etc that both Microsof and its customers pays. Lets also look at the expenses and see what parts of the budget is a service provided to Gates that isn;t provided to the poor. Does Gate's A$$ get better protected by the military than mine ? Does Gates take a larger share of social welfare than the poor ?

If they receive 35%, they may deserve more than 40% back; if they earn 60% of the income, they are entitled to less than 40% back.

("deserve ?")I first disagree that you have established your premise that "they" get more from government just because they are wealthy. Further, as stated you are mixing the stated purposes of taxes and if you truly want to do a asset vs. liability analysis you need to take in the entire picture not just the narrow view that suits your point. Third, even assuming all the numbers ran your way the answer to the question of how to rebate an income tax fairly is still the same. It should be in proportion to the amounts originally taxed. Anything else is a shift of the tax burden without justification. Taking in the undefined concept "deserve" is just class envy politics.

50 posted on 08/05/2002 11:31:48 AM PDT by VRWC_minion
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