First of all, sex is not sodomy. But of course they aren’t, if they don’t act on their paraphilia where is the disorder? Do you know anything about paraphilia?
The APA makes a clear distinction between pedophilia and other sexual disorders and homosexuality.
Ohhh? What distinction is that? Both were paraphilias before 1974 and one isn’t now. The only distinction is that one can claim psychosocial stability and the other can’t, can you explain why? I’m going to guess you can’t so let me help you. Because the APA decided with no scientific evidence, to make homosexuality politically acceptable and end discrimination. But you’ll notice they made no effort to do so for cross dressers, bestials, incestuals, pedophiles, voyeurs, S&M…and on and on. They are hypocrites to protect one perversion over another because they are disproportionately, as an organization, homosexually staffed. Have you ever read the bio’s for the members of Division 44, 60+% of the ones I’ve read are openly homosexual? Both APA’s are self-serving organizations when it comes to staffing the divisions and committees that make policy.
They also say there's no scientific evidence that conversion theropy works.
Ummm…the evidence is objective, if they don’t practice perversion then it works, n’est pas?
If a gay person has no gay relations, does that mean they're not gay? Stop having sex and suddenly they're not gay anymore. HMMM!?
I believe it was Gore Vidal who said, "There are no homosexuals, there are only homosexual acts."
On the other hand, consider the following statement:
"I used to be a murderer, but now I'm not."