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Why Did Prohibition Require a Constitutional Amendment?
Posted on 07/23/2002 9:06:57 AM PDT by Maceman
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1
posted on
07/23/2002 9:06:57 AM PDT
by
Maceman
To: Maceman
An excellent question... I'd like to hear an answer or at very least a theory.
2
posted on
07/23/2002 9:09:04 AM PDT
by
rhombus
To: rhombus
By the way - "briliant" = "brilliant." I can spell. I just can't type.
3
posted on
07/23/2002 9:10:10 AM PDT
by
Maceman
To: Maceman
Because Prohibition was adopted before the Supreme Court had interpreted the Constitution's commerce clause ( Art I, sec. 8) to allow Congress to regulate goods that had not crossed state lines.
To: Maceman
I'm no expert on this, but didn't Prohibition outlaw drugs as well as alcohol? WHen Prohibition was rescinded, I think only alcohol was made lagal again. Other substances were still illegal. Can anyone else confirm this?
5
posted on
07/23/2002 9:11:10 AM PDT
by
doc30
To: Maceman
To: spqrzilla9
We have a winner!
7
posted on
07/23/2002 9:12:13 AM PDT
by
Wolfie
To: Maceman
It may have something to do with the fact that the Constitution was once a document that actually meant something and carried some weight. The feds know what they can get away with these days. We started down the slippery slope just after WW II, and it gets a bit worse every year.
8
posted on
07/23/2002 9:12:56 AM PDT
by
AdA$tra
To: doc30
The Volstead Act only pertained to alcoholic beverages, and only to the manufacture, sale, and transportation thereof. Possession and use remained legal.
9
posted on
07/23/2002 9:13:22 AM PDT
by
Wolfie
To: Maceman
Because... they actually respected the Constitution back then?
10
posted on
07/23/2002 9:13:37 AM PDT
by
inquest
To: doc30
I beleive Marijuana was made illegal during the Korean conflict.
11
posted on
07/23/2002 9:14:22 AM PDT
by
AdA$tra
To: doc30
I'm no expert on this, but didn't Prohibition outlaw drugs as well as alcohol? Nope; the Eighteenth Amendment referred specifically to "intoxicating liquors". Not even Bill Clinton could redefine that as a reference to drugs in general.
12
posted on
07/23/2002 9:16:24 AM PDT
by
steve-b
To: AdA$tra
To: WindMinstrel
I stand corrected.
14
posted on
07/23/2002 9:17:59 AM PDT
by
AdA$tra
To: Maceman
I believe it's in the BECAUSE WE SAY SO Clause....
To: AdA$tra
I correct posts on FR because it makes me feel smart. If I don't see enough factual errors, I just correct spelling and grammar :P
To: AdA$tra
The first marijuana law was passed in 1937. Interestingly, the Gov't still respected the Cosntitution enough to ban it in the form of a tax law (thus, it was known as the Marijuana Tax Stamp Act). Harry J. Ainslinger and the Federal Bureau of Narcotics boys were really in a quandary over how to get this accomplished without raising the dreaded "P" word (Prohibition, which, when repealed, coincidentally put ol' Harry out of a job), but were ecstatic to find precedence for passing a law requiring a Tax Stamp for an item, and then refusing to issue the Stamps, thereby de facto outlawing said item. The model which they were so happy to discover was the Machine Gun Tax Stamp from a few years earlier.
17
posted on
07/23/2002 9:20:28 AM PDT
by
Wolfie
To: Maceman
Because we had a Constitution back then.
To: NC_Libertarian
FMI
To: AdA$tra
The first law against cannabis was the Tax Stamp scam, 1937. You could grow it if you paid for the stamp.
One of the first to try applied for the stamp and was told he couldn't get the stamp until he had his crop grown. He grew it, came back in the fall for his stamp, and they threw him in jail for 4 years for growing it without the stamp. Anslinger made Hoover look human by comparison.
20
posted on
07/23/2002 9:22:15 AM PDT
by
steve50
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