Just between you and me have you ever maintained a civil tongue in your head for more than a few seconds in a row?
Of course, the online persona he has adopted for his posts is also good for a laugh. Once anyway.
"My understanding is FTL effects need not violate causality."
The problem comes with relativity. Suppose that an observer determines that event "A" is in some way the "cause"
of event "B." If FTL communication is possible, then relativity allows the existence of another observer who sees "B"
as occuring in "A's" past, i.e., as the effect having preceded the cause.
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(don, I've no argument here with this poster, becuase he's not obnoxious and he's being helpful.)
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Posted by Physicist to apochromat
#163 of 432
In a Wheeler-Feynman sort of way, I suppose.
No, in a Jack Finney-H.G. Wells sort of way. OBAFGKM already showed you that if Alice sends an FTL signal (event "A")
to an observer Bob (event "B"), and Bob is travelling towards Alice sufficiently fast, event "B" will occur before event "A"
in Bob's frame. That means that in Bob's frame, his line of simultaneity intersects Alice's location at an earlier time than she
sent it. So if Bob bounces this FTL signal back to Alice, it will arrive at her location before she actually sent it.
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WTH?????? Blah! My leg is wet after that humper.