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To: jude24; maestro
so... from the time of AD 100 till 1611, there was no Bible since the KJV wasn't translated yet? And do I have to use a 1611 KJV, or is the 1742 Revision acceptable? Loony....

Did I ever say that the AV1611 was the only Bible in history!

Talk about loony!

There were many Bibles before the AV1611 including the very fine Geneva, based on the Textus Receptus.

In that line of Bibles you find a German Luther's, a Spainish, a Italian, a Czech, a Dutch, well, many translations from the right Greek/Hebrew text, translated by men who believed that they were translating the words of God and not just another book (NIV, NAB, NKJ)

I would be happy to provide you a list of the Bibles before the AV1611!

86 posted on 07/10/2002 12:32:28 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration
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To: fortheDeclaration
isnt the crux of the KJV-only position that it is equal or better to the Greek and Hebrew originals, that it was inspired in its translation?

That is held by some in the KJV-only camp. If it does not describe your beliefs, I apologize.

89 posted on 07/10/2002 12:44:20 PM PDT by jude24
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