[hookville]

As I understand what you have posted, you have been given the right to *use* that piece of property, but you do not *own* it. Actual ownership remains with your neighbor. In any event, I don't see any problem as far as your sale is concerned. Whatever rights you have become, via the sale, the rights of the new owner and it is up to him/her to enforce them. Relax and breathe easy!

[fishtank]

As I understand what you have posted, you have been given the right to *use* that piece of property, but you do not *own* it. Actual ownership remains with your neighbor. Yes, but I have been told that I own the parking rights. To further complicate matters, the house the we want to move to has a neighbor's boat that might be slightly over the property line. I do not want to go thru the same thing again, but in this town, it seems an all too common situation.

[RightWhale]

Whatever rights you have become, via the sale, the rights of the new owner

Not necessarily. Easements are often for a person, not the parcel, so if they are not mentioned in the new deed they might cease to exist. Parcels become landlocked in this manner.

[AdA$tra]

Relax and breathe easy!

I agree. You are granted a right of easement across their property. If they are not allowing the use of that land, then they are just jerks. As long as you don't hold out to the buyer that you OWN that land you park on. I would make it known to them, although they should look at the mortgage survey closely. The title policy for your property probably won't show the beneficial easement as it lies on or across the juxtaposed property. I have seen some that include beneifcial easement in the legal description. Something like this tacked onto the end of the legal description....Together With: an easement for belly dancing over and across the south 10 feet lof lot "x".....If it is on the subdivision plat it should be apparent on a survey as well.