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To: FormerLurker
Where in the Constitution is the nation's subservience to God declared?

Although it's not declared, it's generally accepted.

By whom? On what grounds? We are a nation of explicit written laws.

If we did not have one single Founding document, such an assumption might logically be made. But we do: a document which is the one single supreme law of the land.

In that document, there are two places where one could clearly have made a reference to the nation being subordinate to God. One is the Preamble:

We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

The other is Article VI:

All debts contracted and engagements entered into, before the adoption of this Constitution, shall be as valid against the United States under this Constitution, as under the Confederation.

This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.

The Senators and Representatives before mentioned, and the members of the several state legislatures, and all executive and judicial officers, both of the United States and of the several states, shall be bound by oath or affirmation, to support this Constitution; but no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States.

Yet neither place stipulates this. Indeed, the last part of Article VI states that a person who does not believe in God may not be barred from holding office on those grounds alone.

-Eric

1,323 posted on 06/27/2002 9:20:53 AM PDT by E Rocc
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To: E Rocc
I think the Pledge begs the question: Is the Constitution a pact between the governments of the States -*or*- the People of the States. In short, is there truly an interface between the individual and the Fed other than through his State government. Is there a direct obligation on part of the individual to Fed.gov. that neccessitates the underlying meaning of the Pledge.

Baldly- are we citizens of our state or 14th Amendment citizens?

1,353 posted on 06/27/2002 10:15:30 AM PDT by mindprism.com
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