If foreign aid is un constitutional, why has there never been a court's ruling confirming that?
Let me explain...
One of the big reasons we have a written Constitution is because under the British Crown, we didn't. The Constitution was written to be understood by the reasonably literate layman. It was never the intent of the Founders to have the Acolytes of Lawyerdom gleaning sheep entrails for hidden meanings in the Constitution.
But that seems to be the way it's gone, hasn't it. Today, we had the Supreme Court rule that mentally retarded murderers can't be executed, overturning their own ruling from thirteen years ago, citing "evolving standards of decency" or some such unconstitutional nonsense. The Judiciary is just one of three increasingly corrupt branches of the federal government, and like the other two, ever hungry for power.
So you go read the Constitution, and tell me where the it empowers the President to give away hundreds millions of dollars to Africa.
