To: 4ConservativeJustices
Take Article I sections 8, 9, & 10 in conjuction with Article VI, clause 2.
The states have cannot legally assume powers denied them in Article I. Furthermore, the very act of secession puts states laws above the constitution (which is a no-no) since the secession ordinance itself is a state law.
To: Frumious Bandersnatch
"Furthermore, the very act of secession puts states laws above the constitution..."No, it renders the state no longer subject to the Constitution.
To: Frumious Bandersnatch
The states have cannot legally assume powers denied them in Article I. The listed prohibitions are for states IN the union. Nowhere in Article I (or anywhere else) is there to be found a prohibition against secession. All you throw out is a prohibition against confederacies/treaties. What stops a single state from seceding? Bonus questions: How many attempts does a state get for ratification? Assuming more than one, why would the subseqent attempts be more valid than the fisrt? What's the limit?
Furthermore, the very act of secession puts states laws above the constitution (which is a no-no) since the secession ordinance itself is a state law.
Sigh. The Constitution is sovereign ONLY where such has been delegated. The supremacy clause confers no power.
902 posted on
06/04/2002 12:56:23 PM PDT by
4CJ
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