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To: Frumious Bandersnatch
However they worded it, as long as the People acted to take their State out of the Union, it was still legal.....now matter how they wrote the enabling legislation afterward. Even if they didn't get the explanations right.
855 posted on 06/04/2002 8:23:47 AM PDT by lentulusgracchus
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To: lentulusgracchus
However they worded it, as long as the People acted to take their State out of the Union, it was still legal.

It was not legal under U.S. law, as the Judiciary Act of 1789 requires that civil controversies between the states be submitted to the Supreme Court.

This whole neo-reb rant will not stand the slightest exposure to the record.

Walt

859 posted on 06/04/2002 8:43:40 AM PDT by WhiskeyPapa
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To: lentulusgracchus
However they worded it, as long as the People acted to take their State out of the Union, it was still legal.....now matter how they wrote the enabling legislation afterward. Even if they didn't get the explanations right.

Where, in the Constitution does it even imply that the people have the power to secede?  Don't look to the 9th amendment, because it only talks of the rights of the people - the supremacy clause and enumerated powers still take precedence over any act passed by the people (Your argument does not make any sense for a republic).  BTW, if such a case does occur, the people are acting as the state...
865 posted on 06/04/2002 8:51:53 AM PDT by Frumious Bandersnatch
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