[lentulusgracchus]

The only way that each individual state could exercise such prohibited powers was by raising state laws above constitutional laws.

No, they didn't. They just resumed the powers God gave them, and bestowed them first on their state governments which they had taken out of the Union -- so that their enactments were now ultra vires the Courts of the United States -- and then on the new Confederacy.

All moral and legal.

[Frumious Bandersnatch]

The only way that each individual state could exercise such prohibited powers was by raising state laws above constitutional laws.

No, they didn't. They just resumed the powers God gave them, and bestowed them first on their state governments which they had taken out of the Union -- so that their enactments were now ultra vires the Courts of the United States -- and then on the new Confederacy.

All moral and legal.

I suggest that you read the secession ordinances.  Every one of the states put their own laws above that of the constitution.  Everyone of the states dissolved in whole, or part, their allegiance to the constitution.

To make it simple, each secession resolution was in effect a law.  As such it made state laws supreme over the constitution (see Articles I and VI, and 9th and 10th amendments).

Again I ask, where in the constitution does it say or imply that the constitution is subordinate to state laws (such as, for example, secession ordinances)?