Given that the concept of states rights was paid at least lip service by Jefferson Davis then why shouldn't the local states have the right to limit slavery if they chose to do so?Yes, I realized some might argue this. Does the concept of states rights apply only to the North?
If slavery is recognized in the Constitution, how could the 10th Amendment be used to say that some states can prohibit slavery?
Ah but you see slavery was never specifically recognized by the Constitution. The words 'slave' or 'slavery' appear nowhere in it. Nowhere are there any expressed or implied permissions or restrictions on it so the powers to enact legislation affecting slavery were not powers reserved to the United States. The states could legislate against it or for it as they wished.