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To: seamole
If he had said that he wouldn't do business because he'd endanger business in some other country, e.g. Saudi Arabia, or if he had told a Saudi Arabian that he was no longer doing business with Israelis, he would be in violation.

It's not clear that refusing to do business for one's own reasons falls within the anti boycott law.

But IANAL.

34 posted on 04/24/2002 4:26:59 PM PDT by Lessismore
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