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How is it constitutionally possible for the US government to cede jurisdiction of its citizens to an outside entity? Clearly, there will be violations of Constitutionally guaranteed rights, in order for this court to prosecute. How can the US government sign this convention, that allows the US Constitution to be circumvented? It seems like a clearly "treasonable" act, but what else would we expect from his royal slickness? I think the Ashcroft Justice department should open a treason inquiry, into these actions by Clinton, immediately, and have emailed the President (president@whitehouse.gov) regarding this, and hope you would do so as well.