Posted on 04/03/2002 9:52:50 AM PST by r9etb
Grant for the sake of argument that you're correct about Virginia. The problem is, most of the secessionist states did not (could not!) have such clauses. The independent country of Virginia entered into a compact (which included significant military support) with states that were in open revolt against the U.S.
Virginia thereby declared itself to be our enemy, and as such the U.S. was justified in a military campaign against it.
But if a state has seceded then it's no longer subject to any restrictions in the Constitution, since it is no longer a party to it.
Also, what about Article VII: The ratification of the conventions of nine states, shall be sufficient for the establishment of this Constitution between the states so ratifying the same.
Clearly no state could be forced to be part of the Union without its express consent. By giving consent to enter the Union, a state is supposed to forever surrender it's ability to withdraw its consent?
Why? If Williams says that secession was legal, and that Lincoln was wrong in trying to stop it; and the Constitution flatly contradicts him -- what other argument need be made?
As has been pointed out, the secessionist states were not in revolt against civil authority, since the duly-elected governments of those states were the civil authority. Nowhere does the Constitution state that the Union shall exist in perpetuity. |
And it still doesn't apply!!
Well, here's what it says:
"And it be further enacted, That whenever the laws of the United States shall be opposed or the execution thereof obstructed, in any state, by combinations too powerful to be suppressed by the ordinary course of judicial proceedings, or by the powers vested in the marshals by this act, it shall be lawful for the President of the United States to call forth the militia of such state to suppress such combinations, and to cause the laws to be duly executed. And if the militia of a state, where such combinations may happen, shall refuse, or be insufficient to suppress the same, it shall be lawful for the President, if the legislatures of the United States be not in session, to call forth and employ such numbers of the militia of any other state or states most convenient thereto, as may be necessary, and the use of militia, so to be called forth, may be continued, if necessary, until the expiration of thirty days after the commencement of the ensuing session."
The 1862 Supreme Court decision on the Prize Cases cites the Militia Axt as modified in 1795.
The Militia Act was passed at the request of President Washington.
Just saying it doesn't apply doesn't make it so.
You might want to consider an adult response.
Walt
I agree. It was also illegal to secede from Britain. It was also illegal when Texas seceded from Mexico.
Either you beleive that people are endowed by our creator with certain inalienble rights, which includes the right to self government, or you don't. I do. You don't.
I am a Yankee. I am not saying that "The south was right" or anything like that. They were slaveholders. However the fact that it was "illegal" to secede is meaningless.
You have to remember that the Articles of Confederation were a total failure. Something more pervasive was needed, as George Washington said. The Constitution does have a conflict resolution mechanism; it can be amended.
But you are correct. There is no legal way out of the Union without the consent of the other states.
Walt
There is nothing in the Constitution which forbids the secession of states, so this argument of yours is irrelevant. |
Article X.
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
Which is EXACTLY what did happen in 1860-61. The slaveholding states chose to put up their own candidate, Breckinridge, and so split the vote allowing Lincoln to be elected in a plurality.
They didn't like it, they said much the same kinds of things about it that the Democrats (again!) said about G. W. Bush in 2000, and so the seceded rather than face the steady decline of the power of the slaveowner. They had been beaten in "Bleeding Kansas" five years earlier, they had been prohibited by the Wilmot Proviso from extending slavery into the new territories, and they saw no alternatives to either giving up on the inevitable emancipation of their "property" or leaving the union (even if illegally), so that's what they did.
In the case of the slaveholders' rebellion, "the People" had nothing to do with it. It was all done by the will of a few powerful and influential slaveholders and their political cronies.
Hardly a popular revolt.
I didn't say that at all
Both secession of individual states and the abolition or replacement of the constitution itself are implicitly covered under the provisions governing the amendment of the constitution. Secession was, and still is possible. All that is needed is a constitutional amendment providing for the secession of the states that request it. Similarly, the present constitution could be replaced in its entirety through the amendment process. The amendment could be, in effect, a "deconstitution" detailing the disposition of federal assets and liabilities, treaty obligations, etc.
What is NOT provided for in the constitution is the unilateral secession of individual states.
It is an interesting "what if" question as to what would have happened if a constitutional amendment resolution were introduced in congress in 1860 allowing for the secession of the slave states.
Wrong. It was done by the duly-elected governments of the respective states. That's as close to 'the will of the people" as you can get in this world. |
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